Javascript that will run only one one domain - javascript

I would like to create some javascript that will only run on a given domain. We want to give each of our subscribers a bit of javascript that they can only run on their domain. The javascript will create an iFrame and bring in a page, etc.
If the javascript is placed on a different domain, an error is thrown and the script stops and the iFrame page will not load. Before you say this is not possible, it is done by Google Maps.
So, in short, we would like to mimic what Google Maps is doing. You register a domain with Google, they give you code that has a key and if you place this code on any other domain, it will not work. How do they do it?

The hostname property of window.location contains a hostname. It can be faked, so you could try checking the Referer header when serving your script, too – but absolutely do not rely on that.
You could also do a bit of a validity check by making a request to a nonexistent page on that domain – it’ll be blocked by cross-origin policies if the developer is cheating.

Another possible solution is to use the IP address, since the code is placed on a server.
I've made an license script with this method, and so far only 2 mad customers, but that was because they moved their website to another server without me telling it.
I think its good to have a client check, but that can be by-passed, if someone figures out how the script works. So, always do a server-side check.
Here is some code I use for the license check, its server based.
Also, I removed some functions that are specific to my website.
I can't figure out how to post code so I put it on pastebin.
http://pastebin.com/ftEDXhTP

When you give the user their snippet of code, on the server-side, store a specific domain name with an identifier you give to the user. You will likely generate this code automatically, like StackOverflow did with your question. They called it 19850979, so let's use that as the identifier you give to your user for example. When the user puts the snippet in place, when they use the iframe for example, the URL referenced in the iframe must contain the identifier.
Not sure what your server-side technologies are, but generally this concept works across the board:
For example... your server saves this information in its database:
user-example-domain.com,19850979
Your user's iframe ( which you generate and give them ) references:
your-serving-domain.com/iframeloader/19850979
Now, in the code that handles /iframeloader/ and receives 19850979 as the identifier, compare the hostname of the referrer. This is the Referer header, which is an HTTP header field:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_HTTP_header_fields
If the hostname of the referrer is value, continue loading the iframe. If not, abort and show some kind of informative error message.

Related

How to map a custom URL to a REST resource in an SPA?

I have a design issue with my SPA, and hope someone can give me some direction. A user profile page is rendered like this:
The browser fetches /some-username.
The server checks to see if the request was a XMLHTTPRequest or not. It is not, and so it simply returns the bundled javascript app to the browser to execute.
The javascript bundle is executed in the browser, it sees the current URL and makes an AJAX request, again to /some-username.
The server sees the XMLHTTPRequest header, looks up the user who has the custom URL "/some-username" and returns the JSON data about the user back to the javascript to render.
This feels wrong. The app should be making RESTful requests to /users/:id to fetch the user data. But how can it know the id that corresponds to the user with the URL /some-username?
It is worth adding an extra HTTP request just to look up the resource identifier? Something like /get_user_id?url=/some-username.
Are you flexible about your API? If so you may change /some-username to /user-id or if you want to include username /user-id/username but ignore username.
As alternative it is also common to make requests in a filter form. Like /users?username=peter
And feel free to use /users/peter if your username identifies the user. Becuase it's actualy the id (that doesn't have to be integer) and then your url is exactly /users/:id
There is nothing "unRESTful" about /some-username. It's just another resource. The response - I hope - contains the canonical URL /user/id anyway, either as a header or as some kind of "self" link.
That's also how you could achieve your goal. Embed the URL in the page either as JavaScript or as a header equivalent (unfortunately you cannot read the headers of the page request with JavaScript):
//header. Can also use a custom header like X-User-Location
<meta http-eqiv="Location" content="/user/id">
//JavaScript
<script>
var userURL = '/user/id
</script>
I recommend keeping your current approach.

Navigate to a URL Only if it Exists with JavaScript

I am trying to have my webpage navigate to provided URL. If the URL provides doesn't exist I want my page to redirect to an alternative URL. I need to do this in JavaScript.
This is what I've tried so far:
var customUrl = 'http://www.StackOverflow.com/ThisPageWillResultIn404';
var alternateUrl = 'AlternateUrl.html?e=PageIs404'
setTimeout(function() { window.location=alternateUrl; }, 25);
window.location = customUrl;
This seems to work fine in IOS, but not in Android.
Why Javascript Can't Do This -
If you make requests cross-domain (not from on your site domain) then the requests will fail. This due to a security policy called the "Same-Origin Policy" which is enforced in mainstream browsers to prevent XSS (cross site scripting). A table listed in the Same-Origin Policy Wikipedia page gives a good description of what is considered cross-domain and what is not.
To summarize, client side scripts cannot and should not be able to access sites deemed as cross-domain by the Same-Origin policy.
This means that Javascript will not be able to do what you're asking because it cannot determine anything about the links your users provide unless those links are to your own site.
This seems to work fine in IOS, but not in Android.
While this shouldn't be possible on any device, your current method most likely works because a page that doesn't exist will likely cause the device's browser to linger while it tries to load the non-existent page. While it is still lingering, your code in the timeout runs and redirects. While this is clever, it relies on several assumptions:
The browser will linger when encountering the non-existent page.
The browser will linger for more than 25 milliseconds.
So what's wrong with these assumptions?
You can't assume all browsers will linger. This may explain why Android devices don't seem to work for you. If the server responsible for the link being called is configured to return a 404 page then the page will load normally leaving your script unaware that the link didn't actually exist. For instance, this page doesn't exist, but a 404 page is still returned.
The length of time that a page takes to load also relies on several things such as the connection speed, the browser, the timeout/tolerance the page gives to requests that don't reply, etc. It is likely that clients using your site on a slow connection will be unable to access any sites due to it taking longer than 25 milliseconds to load them while users using a fast connection and a particular browser may experience all pages loading faster than 25 milliseconds thus thwarting your system's intent.
What Can Do This?
The proper solution to this problem requires something to be performed server side. Server side langues can access cross-domain links and determine if the page exists. Stackoverflow user karim79 shows how this can be done with the following PHP snippet (How can I check if a URL exists via PHP?):
$file = 'http://www.domain.com/somefile.jpg';
$file_headers = #get_headers($file);
if($file_headers[0] == 'HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found') {
$exists = false;
}
else {
$exists = true;
}
A call from your Javascript with ajax could then be used to send a parameter to the script and then get a response. Obviously minor tweaks would have to be made to the PHP script above to include the parameter and return value.
Lucky for you, Yahoo provides an API driven by YQL, a service they describe as:
Query, filter, and join data across Web services through one simple
language. Eliminate the need to learn how to call different APIs.
Another user looking for a similar solution (Can jQuery/js help me determine if an URL exists) got an answer from Stackoverflow user Sheikh Heera which provided the following solution utilizing the Yahoo API:
function isUrlExists(url)
{
$.getJSON("http://query.yahooapis.com/v1/public/yql?"+
"q=select%20*%20from%20html%20where%20url%3D%22"+
encodeURIComponent(url)+"%22&format=json'&callback=?", function(data){
if(data.results[0]){
alert('Exists');
}
else{
alert('Doesn\'t exist');
}
}
);
}
isUrlExists('http://google.com');
Basically Yahoo will make the request server side and allow you to get the results without you having to write anything server side yourself. This is awesome! This particular example utilizes jQuery, however, it could be done in just plain Javascript.
I've written up a JS-Fiddle with this particular method that seems to work. Check it out:
http://jsfiddle.net/L84RV/embedded/result/

get referer of website that is requesting your js file

I have an embed script that simply does this:
document.write(unescape('%3Cscript src="' + mp_protocol + 'blah.cloudapp.net/js?location="' + window.location +' type="text/javascript"%3E%3C/script%3E'));
As you can see right now the URL of the webpage that is embedding the code is passed in using window.location. But this can easily be edited by the client.
I wanted to know if I can get the referrer instead of passing the url. I wasn't sure if referring info would be passed since this script is embedded?
(yes, you can also fake referrers... but that is a bit more effort than I think most people will want).
The browser will usually send a "Referer" (sic) header for script requests which contain the URL of the page that contains the script link, regardless of how that script element was created.
This is accessible by checking the "Referer" HTTP variable (note unusual spelling).
The idea is that you can check this variable and see if it refers to part of your site.
Note that this variable is not always accurate; a user may elect to protect their privacy by not sending a referer header (using some sort of dinky privacy tool) and they may even modify their browser to send whatever they want in this field. So it shouldn't be relied upon for authentication, unless you also take into account that even a legitimate user may have left it blank or put an arbitrary string in it.

How to get javascript in an iframe to modify the parent document?

So I have two documents dA and dB hosted on two different servers sA and sB respectively.
Document dA has some JS which opens up an iframe src'ing document dB, with a form on it. when the form in document dB is submitted to a form-handler on server sB, I want the iframe on page dA to close.
I hope that was clear enough. Is there a way to do this?
Thanks!
-Mala
UPDATE: I have no control over dA or sA except via inserted javascript
This isn't supposed to be possible due to browser/JavaScript security sandbox policy. That being said, it is possible to step outside of those limitations with a bit of hackery. There are a variety of methods, some involving Flash.
I would recommend against doing this if possible, but if you must, I'd recommend the DNS approach referred to here:
http://www.alexpooley.com/2007/08/07/how-to-cross-domain-javascript/
Key Excerpt:
Say domain D wants to
connect to domain E. In a nutshell,
the trick is to use DNS to point a
sub-domain of D, D_s, to E’s server.
In doing so, D_s takes on the
characteristics of E, while also being
accessible to D.
Assume that I create page A, that lies withing a frame that covers the entire page.
Let A link to yourbank.com, and you click on that link. Now if I could use javascript that modifies the content of the frame (banking site), I would be able to quite easily read the password you are using and store it in a cookie, send it to my server, etc.
That is the reason you cannot modify the content in another frame, whose content is NOT from the same domain. However, if they ARE from the same domain, you should be able to modify it as you see fit (both pages must be on your server).
You should be able to access the iframe with this code:
window["iframe_name"].document.body
If you just want the top-level to close, you can just call something like this:
window.top.location = "http://www.example.com/dC.html";
This will close out dA and sent the user to dC.html instead. dC.html can have the JS you want to run (for example, to close the window) in the onload handler.
Other people explained security implications. But the question is legitimate, there are use cases for that, and it is possible in some scenarios to do what you want.
W3C defines a property on document called domain, which is used to check security permissions. This property can be manipulated cooperatively by both documents, so they can access each other in some cases.
The governing document is DOM Level 1 Spec. Look at the description of document. As you can see this property is defined there and … it is read-only. In reality all browsers allow to modify it:
Mozilla's document.domain description.
Microsoft's domain property description.
Modifications cannot be arbitrary. Usually only super-domains are allowed. It means that you can make two documents served by different server to access each other, as long as they have a common super-domain.
So if you want two pages to communicate, you need to add a small one-liner, which should be run on page load. Something like that should do the trick:
document.domain = "yourdomain.com";
Now you can serve them from different subdomains without losing their accessibility.
Obviously you should watch for timing issues. They can be avoided if you establish a notification protocol of some sort. For example, one page (the master) sets its domain, and loads another page (the server). When the server is operational, it changes its domain and accesses the master triggering some function.
A mechanism to do so would be capable of a cross-site scripting attack (since you could do more than just remove a benign bit of page content).
A safe approach would limit to just the iframe document emptying/hiding itself, but if the iframe containing it is fixed size, you will just end up with a blank spot on the page.
If you don't have control over dA or Sa this isn't possible because of browser security restrictions. Even the Flash methods require access to both servers.
This is a bit convoluted but may be more legitimate than a straight XSS solution:
You have no control over server A other than writing javascript to document A. But you are opening an iframe within document A, which suggests that you only have write-access to document A. This a bit confusing. Are you writing the js to document A or injecting it somehow?
Either way, here is what I dreamed up. It won't work if you have no access to the server which hosts the page which has the iframe.
The user hits submit on the form within the iframe. The form, once completed, most likely changes something on the server hosting that form. So you have an AJAX function on Document A which asks a server-side script to check if the form has been submitted yet. If it has, the script returns a "submitted" value to the AJAX function, which triggers another js function to close the iframe.
The above requires a few things:
The iframe needs to be on a page hosted on a server where you can write an additional server-side script (this avoids the cross-domain issue, since the AJAX is pointing to the same directory, in theory).
The server within the iframe must have some url that can be requested which will return some kind of confirmation that the form has been submitted.
The "check-for-submitted" script needs to know both the above-mentioned URL and what to look for upon loading said URL.
If you have all of the above, the ajax function calls the server-script, the server-script uses cURL to go the URL that reflects if the form is done, the server-script looks for the "form has been submitted" indicators, and, depending on what it finds, returns an answer of "not submitted" or "submitted" to the ajax function.
For example, maybe the form is for user registration. If your outer document knows what username will be entered into the form, the server-side script can go to http://example.org/username and if it comes up with "user not found" you know the form has yet to be submitted.
Anything that goes beyond what is possible in the above example is probably outside of what is safe and secure anyway. While it would be very convenient to have the iframe close automatically when the user has submitted it, consider the possibility that I have sent you an email saying your bank account needs looking at. The email has a link to a page I have made which has an iframe of your bank's site set to fill the entire viewable part of my page. You log in as normal, because you are very trusting. If I had access to the fact that you hit submit on the page, that would imply I also had access to what you submitted or at the very least the URL that the iframe redirected to (which could have a session ID in or all sorts of other data the bank shouldn't include in a URL).
I don't mean to sound preachy at all. You should just consider that in order to know about one event, you often are given access to other data that you ought not have.
I think a slightly less elegant solution to your problem would be to have a link above the iframe that says "Finished" or "Close" that kills the iframe when the user is done with the form. This would not only close the iframe when the user has submitted the form, but also give them a chance to to say "oops! I don't want to fill out this form anyway. Nevermind!" Right now with your desired automatic solution, there is no way to get rid of the iframe unless the user hits submit.
Thank you everybody for your answers. I found a solution that works:
On my server, I tell the form to redirect to the url that created the iframe.
On the site containing the iframe, I add a setInterval function to poll for the current location of the iframe.
Due to JS sandboxing, this poll does not work while the url is foreign (i.e. before my form is submitted). However, once the url is local (i.e. identical to that of the calling page), the url is readable, and the function closes the iframe. This works as soon as the iframe is redirected, I don't even need to wait for the additional pageload.
Thank you very much Greg for helping me :)

Cross domain Ajax request from within js file

Here's the problem:
1.) We have page here... www.blah.com/mypage.html
2.) That page requests a js file www.foo.com like this...
<script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.foo.com/jsfile.js" />
3.) "jsfile.js" uses Prototype to make an Ajax request back to www.foo.com.
4.) The ajax request calls www.foo.com/blah.html. The callback function gets the html response and throws it into a div.
This doesn't seem to work though, I guess it is XSS. Is that correct?
If so, how can I solve this problem? Is there any other way to get my html from www.foo.com to www.blah.com on the client without using an iframe?
It is XSS and it is forbidden. You should really not do things that way.
If you really need to, make your AJAX code call the local code (PHP, ASP, whatever) on blah.com and make it behave like client and fetch whatever you need from foo.com and return that back to the client. If you use PHP, you can do this with fopen('www.foo.com/blah.html', 'r') and then reading the contents as if it was a regular file.
Of course, allow_remote_url_fopen (or whatever it is called exactly) needs to be enabled in your php.ini.
There is a w3c proposal for allowing sites to specify other sites which are allowed to make cross site queries to them. (Wikipedia might want to allow all request for articles, say, but google mail wouldn't want to allow requests - since this might allow any website open when you are logged into google mail to read your mail).
This might be available at some point in the future.
As mentioned above JSONP is a way around this. However, the site that you are requesting the data from needs to support JSONP in order for you to use on the client. (JSONP essentially injects a script tag into the page, and provides a callback function that should be called with the results)
If the site you are making a request to does not support JSONP you will have to proxy the request on your server. As mentioned above you can do this on your own server or what I have done in the past is use a http://www.jsonpit.com, which will proxy the request for you.
One option is to implement a proxy page which takes the needed url as a parameter. e.g. http://blah.com/proxy?uri=http://foo.com/actualRequest
JSONP was partially designed to get around the problem you are having
http://ajaxian.com/archives/jsonp-json-with-padding
JQuery has it in their $.getJSON method
http://docs.jquery.com/Ajax/jQuery.getJSON
The method shown above could become a large security hole.
Suggest you verify the site name against a white list and build the actual URI being proxied on the server side.
For cross domain hits this is a good working example and now is considered as some what "standard" http://www.xml.com/pub/a/2005/12/21/json-dynamic-script-tag.html.
there are other ways as well, for eg injecting iframes with document.domain altered
http://fettig.net/weblog/2005/11/28/how-to-make-xmlhttprequest-connections-to-another-server-in-your-domain/
I still agre that the easy way is calling a proxy in same domain but then it's not truly client side WS call.

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